- Posts: 1
- Joined: Oct 03, 2020
- Sat Oct 03, 2020 4:46 am
#79671
Hello,
I tried to search for this topic, but was not successful, so here it is...
I just wanted to clarify if in context of LSAT problems would "some" be equivalent to "many"? Because a solution to a Must Be True question in the bible states that "many" is not "most" (it is understandable) and yet having gone through formal logic chapter "some" would be equivalent to "a few" "a number", but I have not seen "many" on the list even though it seems intuitive to include it there...
Could you, also, in answering the question address the numerical merits of both if possible. As I understand "some" is 1 to 99 on a scale of 0 to 100, what would be considered as "many"?
Thanks for help.
I tried to search for this topic, but was not successful, so here it is...
I just wanted to clarify if in context of LSAT problems would "some" be equivalent to "many"? Because a solution to a Must Be True question in the bible states that "many" is not "most" (it is understandable) and yet having gone through formal logic chapter "some" would be equivalent to "a few" "a number", but I have not seen "many" on the list even though it seems intuitive to include it there...
Could you, also, in answering the question address the numerical merits of both if possible. As I understand "some" is 1 to 99 on a scale of 0 to 100, what would be considered as "many"?
Thanks for help.
