Some vs Many

[obs23]

Hello,

I tried to search for this topic, but was not successful, so here it is...

I just wanted to clarify if in context of LSAT problems would "some" be equivalent to "many"? Because a solution to a Must Be True question in the bible states that "many" is not "most" (it is understandable) and yet having gone through formal logic chapter "some" would be equivalent to "a few" "a number", but I have not seen "many" on the list even though it seems intuitive to include it there...

Could you, also, in answering the question address the numerical merits of both if possible. As I understand "some" is 1 to 99 on a scale of 0 to 100, what would be considered as "many"?

Thanks for help.

[Dave Killoran]

Hi Obs,

Let me refer you to a blog post I wrote that covers various terms, including "many": http://blog.powerscore.com/lsat/bid/153 ... l-and-Many

While "some" doesn't always equal "many" (what if you had only three items?), "many" always" implies "some" (because once you have "many" you automatically have "some"). Also, as mentioned in the book, keep in mind that indicator lists never include every term because then the lists would be so extensive as to be nearly useless. Instead, the include the primary terms LSAC uses to convey these ideas

Please let me know if that helps. Thanks!

[obs23]

Thanks Dave, it is quite helpful to distinguish those. And as you pointed out in your blog "sadly" it is what we have to pay significant attention to.

But just to put a number on it... Would you say, out of 100, it would be 3<"many"<50? or "many" in this case would be more of a 10<"many"<50? Because as I understand now, many = most are not, so it is definitely not more than 50...it is just that the lower limit more of a concern, again using the specific band of 100. I guess then we can simply take a proportion of a different number

Thanks much.

[Dave Killoran]

Hi Obs,

Great, I'm glad this is helping so far! Let's talk a bit more about this, and discuss why terms like "many" are so troublesome.

One dictionary definition of "many" is "a large indefinite number." That use of "indefinite" tells us right away that what we're seeking is not something we can pin down perfectly. However, as you suggest, we can create a range, but I can tell you now that even that range will have debatable aspects. What that means, fortunately, is that LSAC will not ask a question that depends on a precise definition of this term (because it really doesn't exist ).

One thing to clear up is that "many" does not imply "most are not." It is entirely possible that "many" refers to a number that is large enough to equal "most." So, that said, what would be the range of we were looking at a 0-100 scale? Probably it would typically be used in a manner to refer to something like 30 to 80, but, just as with "some," it could include numbers all the way up to 100 (it hasn't been used on the LSAT in that fashion, however).

In reference to the lower limit idea, I'd suggest that whatever the scaling used, "many" would have to be at least 1/4 of the greatest amount, and probably closer to at least 1/3 (in our 0-100 scale, it would have to be over 25, then and somewhere approaching 33 as the lower limit), but that is non-scientific estimate.

Please let me know if that helps. Thanks!

[obs23]

Better late than never, realized I forgot to say thanks as I was going through my posts! Thanks a lot Dave. All totally makes sense.

Regards,
Obs