Hello,
I've been looking over this question and any input would be appreciated
I am comparing answers B (what I initially chose) and C (correct answer).
Why I chose B: I thought the main gist of the passage is that when monetary damages are sufficient in a case, enforcing specific performance should be avoided. Part of the reason for this is that in situations of employment contracting (as in question 24), enforcing specific performance can lead to negative psychological consequences. In the passage it talks about how court-enforced performance of the contract can be "detrimental to those involved in the dispute" and "should be avoided" and also that it requires "coercion" and risks "heightening dissatisfaction" and "intensifying psychological friction."
I chose B because I thought it compared monetary damages and specific performance in a way the author would agree with--that we should consider the negative psychological repercussions of enforcing specific performance.
However, looking at answer C, I can also see why this is compelling. The author is against specific performance in most cases of contractual employment, and answer C displays this. At the same time I'm not sure the author says in the passage that enforcement of specific performances would OFTEN be less than fully successful. Are we meant to infer this?
Also, is B incorrect because it assumes that specific performance costs less for the court to enforce than monetary damages, but this actually isn't stated in the passage? In fact, the passage seems to imply that it may cost more to enforce specific performance, although I may be reading into this too much: "even if the court HAD the resources necessary to ensure that such a contract would be enforced according to its terms" (line 47-48).
Thanks!