- Posts: 19
- Joined: Jan 02, 2025
- Mon Apr 28, 2025 4:22 pm
#112732
Hello! I'm studying Formal Logic now, and had a question about making inherent inferences from somes and mosts.
The Logic Bible says that A -(M)-> B -(M)-> C does not yield an inference, but would it yield A <-(S)-> B <-(S)-> C because going backwards against an arrow yields the inference some?
Some clarity on the relationship between somes and mosts inferences would be helpful. Thank you so much in advance!
The Logic Bible says that A -(M)-> B -(M)-> C does not yield an inference, but would it yield A <-(S)-> B <-(S)-> C because going backwards against an arrow yields the inference some?
Some clarity on the relationship between somes and mosts inferences would be helpful. Thank you so much in advance!