- Mon Jun 28, 2021 8:34 pm
#88354
Hi there, I read through the explanations but it's still not clicking.
We know that the people are allergic to proteins. However, we don't know which proteins are responsible because it varies from person to person. We also know that "it is common for a given cat to cause an allergic reaction in some - but not all - allergy sufferers." In other words, a cat could have proteins X and Y; one person would be allergic to X, while another one would be allergic to Y.
How is (C) supported then? I mean, the cats could be identical with respect to their protein, and certain groups of people would be allergic to protein X, while others would be allergic to Y. Previous posts by the Admin and Steve Stein generally state the same explanation: "The author provides that cats can commonly elicit allergic reactions in some allergy sufferers and not others. Combined with the fact that these allergies are caused by specific proteins in the skin and saliva, this supports the inference that these proteins must vary among cats." But I can't see how we are making that inference. Couldn't the proteins in all cats remain the same yet affect people differently based on which protein they are susceptible to?
Nekrowizard had a similar question to mine. In a part of his explanation, Jon Gore states, "If all cats secrete the same proteins, then every cat would cause an allergic reaction in all people who are allergic to cats." But that doesn't seem right because it depends on which proteins the different groups of people are susceptible to, in accordance with the stimulus.
Please help before I throw the laptop out of the window. Thanks in advance.
We know that the people are allergic to proteins. However, we don't know which proteins are responsible because it varies from person to person. We also know that "it is common for a given cat to cause an allergic reaction in some - but not all - allergy sufferers." In other words, a cat could have proteins X and Y; one person would be allergic to X, while another one would be allergic to Y.
How is (C) supported then? I mean, the cats could be identical with respect to their protein, and certain groups of people would be allergic to protein X, while others would be allergic to Y. Previous posts by the Admin and Steve Stein generally state the same explanation: "The author provides that cats can commonly elicit allergic reactions in some allergy sufferers and not others. Combined with the fact that these allergies are caused by specific proteins in the skin and saliva, this supports the inference that these proteins must vary among cats." But I can't see how we are making that inference. Couldn't the proteins in all cats remain the same yet affect people differently based on which protein they are susceptible to?
Nekrowizard had a similar question to mine. In a part of his explanation, Jon Gore states, "If all cats secrete the same proteins, then every cat would cause an allergic reaction in all people who are allergic to cats." But that doesn't seem right because it depends on which proteins the different groups of people are susceptible to, in accordance with the stimulus.
Please help before I throw the laptop out of the window. Thanks in advance.