#25 - One reason why European music has had such a strong

[smile22]

For this question I know that it is a CAN NOT be true question type. I know that in these question types that if an answer choice cannot be traced back to the stimulus, then it could be true and is therefore incorrect. However, if an answer choice directly contradicts a statement made in the stimulus, then it is the correct answer.

In going through the answer choices, I was able to determine that:

A.) could be true - African music is not discussed in the stimulus
B.) could be true - European military and economic expansionism is not discussed in the stimulus
C.) could be true - Chinese music is not discussed in the stimulus
E.) could be true - the stimulus does not discuss loss of appeal in art

To me, answer D was not that appealing either. This answer does discuss music being presented independently of its function and how that makes music sophisticated, which the stimulus also discusses. Is this answer correct because the stimulus says that music that is presented independently of its function has internal coherency (meaning that it is intelligible); however, this answer refers to unintelligible music?

[KelseyWoods]

Hi Smile!

So the stimulus in this question basically tells us that one reason that European music is a sophisticated achievement is that it got to a point where the music could exist independently of its original function (in other words, it is intelligible outside of its original function).

Great job eliminating those wrong answer choices! Let's look at why answer choice (D) is correct:

Answer choice (D) states that music that is unintelligible outside of its original function (or cannot exist independently of its original function) tends to be the most sophisticated. That is not compatible with what the stimulus said. If intelligibility outside of function is one reason why European music is so sophisticated, then how could music that is unintelligible outside of its function be considered the most sophisticated?

You are correct that the concepts in answer choice (D) are discussed in the stimulus, you're just trying to draw the wrong connection. The key connection is not between intelligibility and existing independently of its function. The key connection is between intelligibility outside of original function and sophistication.

Does that make sense?

Best,
Kelsey

[smile22]

Yes, this makes sense. Thank you very much for the explanation

[eober]

Hi,

Why can't answer choice D be true? The stimulus doesn't restrict what make the music "most" sophisticated.

Thanks for your help!

[Nicholas Bruno]

Hi!

Here I do not think the word "most" is relevant. The stimulus says that the fact that music can stand on its own outside its original function is a factor that makes the music sophisticated. D is the opposite: it says if music is unintelligible outside its original function, the music is "most sophisticated." Thus, D is not consistent.

I hope that helps!

[sofiaherrera1]

"The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:"
What question type is this?

[Claire Horan]

Smile22 was correct--this question is a type of "cannot be true" question. That is because all of the incorrect answer choices could be true/compatible with the stimulus. Only the correct answer is incompatible with the stimulus/cannot be true.

[mN2mmvf]

I'm also stumped about choice (D). Why can't both music that is intelligible outside its original function be sophisticated, and music that is unintelligible outside its original function also be sophisticated?

[Francis O'Rourke]

The only information that we have on why any music is considered sophisticated is that European music is sophisticated because the music became independent of the original function.

Answer choice (D) tell us that the exact opposite type of music (music which cannot stand independent of function) tends to be the most sophisticated. If answer choice (D) were true, we would need to reevaluate the causal connection that the stimulus presented between European music's shedding of function and it's sophistication.

[fortunateking]

Dear PS people,
I also have some problem with (D). The stimulus tells us that being independent of its original function is one reason why European music is sophisticated, but that doesn't mean that it is the only reason for sophistication. Maybe there are other reasons that can make music even more sophisticated/most sophisticated.
Like:
-One reason why Ferrari is fast is that it has a powerful V10 fuel engine.
-Cars that do not have a fuel engine tends to be the fastest. (I mean Tesla if you wonder)
These two claims don't seem to contradict with each other at all, do they?
Please let me know where I go wrong.