- Tue Jul 17, 2018 4:45 am
#48003
For the correct answer 'Not all currently recognized masterpieces that were once considered obscene are still considered obscene' does this mean that some currently recognized masterpieces are obscene? Or does it mean that all currently recognized masterpieces are not obscene?
But how does this relate to changing over time, and thus become a necessary assumption of the argument?
But how does this relate to changing over time, and thus become a necessary assumption of the argument?