Hi guadalupefren,
If you haven't already done so, I'd recommend reading the VIEWSTAMP analysis for this passage.
It can be found here:
viewtopic.php?f=1523&t=38991
This question is asking for "the purpose of the reference to eruptions of modernity in classical music" mentioned in the second paragraph. The second paragraph draws a parallel between a theory of what happened to classical music in the early 1900s and what the typical accounts of bebop claim happened to jazz.
Referring to the descriptions of swing in the prior paragraph, the second paragraph states "These metaphors, sampled from various writings on jazz,
echo the “crisis theory” of twentieth-century European classical music" (my emphasis). The word "echo" is a clue that these ideas are parallel. A few lines later, the passage states that "Something
similar is implied about jazz in the early 1940s" (my emphasis), again showing the parallels/similarities between these two.
Answer B best captures this idea (notice the key word "parallel" in the answer) and is therefore correct.
Answer A describes evidence undermining the typical accounts of the origins of bebop. While the author does disagree with the typical accounts of the origins of bebop, this doesn't occur in the passage until the final paragraph. The discussion of the “crisis theory” of twentieth-century European classical music in paragraph two is not intended to undermine the the typical accounts of the origins of bebop, but to show a theory that is parallel to the typical accounts of bebop's origins.
