#21 - The Iliad and the Odyssey were both attributed to

[Nadia0702]

Hi PowerScore,

What's wrong with answer choice D?

I narrowed it down to C and D and ultimately shied away from C because I was afraid that it was not relevant to the conclusion about HOMER. Sure, another author, a MODERN author can have the same differences in his/her work but how does that weaken a conclusion about HOMER? For all I know, that author could have emulated Homer in those respects.

Hmm, but now that I'm thinking about it, answer choice D sucks as an answer. The fact that Iliad and Odyssey taken by themselves "are not COMPLETELY consistent in all of the respects mentioned" really doesn't do anything to the argument about them not being both by Homer. Hmm...

Thanks for your help!
Nadia

[Nikki Siclunov]

Hi Nadia,

Indeed, answer choice (D) is a lousy answer - it does not weaken the conclusion as it has no bearing on the issue of whether the Iliad and the Odyssey are written by the same poet.

Answer choice (C) does, by analogy. If the same modern writer can create two works drastically different from one another, perhaps Homer did as well, and so the Iliad and the Odyssey were the works of the same poet. You have a point, though: maybe modern writers are totally different from ancient poets. It's not a perfect analogy for sure, and it does not disprove the conclusion. It merely weakens it, which is good enough for us - no other answer choice comes even close to accomplishing this goal.

Let me know if this helps!

[Nadia0702]

Thank you Nikki, this helps a lot. I really get hung up on weaken questions sometimes because my mind is just set on "destroying" an argument. The gray area of weakening or just simply calling the argument into question, even if very lightly, for some reason is something my brain just fights. Thanks for the reminder that good enough is good enough. I've got 2 weeks to transform my brain!!!!

Thanks again,
Nadia

[Nikki Siclunov]

Yes, you don't have to fully destroy the argument in order to weaken it. Weakening an argument does not mean that you have proven the conclusion false (this is a logical flaw in and of itself).

Keep up the good work! Two weeks is plenty of time to rewire your brain

[Rhei1Kel]

Why doesn't A weaken the argument? I realize it mentions hymns but if his work has already been believed to be quite different from one piece to another, doesn't that show it is possible and it should not be concluded that they are almost certainly not the work of the same poet? I chose A because I figured that an answer using Homers works would weaken, not an example that uses modern day. Maybe modern writers use a totally different style than ancient poets.

[Nikki Siclunov]

Hello Rhei1Kel,

Thanks for your question! It's a valid concern: if two very different works (the hymns and the Odyssey) are being attributed to the same author, why not make the same attribution regarding two works that differ less (the Odyssey and the Iliad)? Here's the problem with this logic:

According to answer choice A, the hymns are merely being attributed to Homer. Did he actually write them? We don't know. After all, the author argues that the original attribution of the Iliad and/or the Odyssey is incorrect, so it's perfectly fine to question the reliability of this attribution. Furthermore, even if Homer did write the hymns, isn't it possible that the hymns and the Odyssey are his, but the Iliad is not? Tricky!

Keep in mind the task at hand: you need to show that the Iliad and the Odyssey were both written by Homer. Even if answer choice A is true, we still don't know if Homer actually wrote the Iliad or the Odyssey, nor do we know for sure that he wrote the hymns that are being attributed to him. The only information provided is about whom these works are being attributed to, not about who actually wrote them.

Hope this helps!

[Rhei1Kel]

Thank you verY much for your response on an older thread. Your response helps me understand why choice A is wrong. I am, however, confused why C is correct. It is only through the process of elimination I can see how it is the correct answer choice but this concerns me.

Maybe if I explain my reasoning why I immediately eliminated the correct answer choice can provide insight that may help me?

When I first read this answer I thought "ok, this is obviously wrong. The stimulus regards ancient poetry. It says nothing about modern works. This answer clearly tries to trick people." For some reason I envision someone choosing this answer and it's wrong on the grounds that "the stimulus refers to ancient, it says nothing about modern" Am I thinking too much? I'm real concerned because I assumed my reasoning behind this was solid. Only a week left!! Am I that off base'?

[Nikki Siclunov]

I completely understand what you're saying. However, C is relevant by analogy. See my earlier response:

If the same modern writer can create two works drastically different from one another, perhaps Homer did as well, and so the Iliad and the Odyssey were the works of the same poet. You have a point, though: maybe modern writers are totally different from ancient poets. It's not a perfect analogy for sure, and it does not disprove the conclusion. It merely weakens it, which is good enough for us - no other answer choice comes even close to accomplishing this goal.

Let me know if that makes sense!

[Rhei1Kel]

Yes this does help! Thank you!

[jonwg5121]

How does answer choice (D) have no bearing on the conclusion?

In my head, I thought the stimulus to be: Because the two poems are not consistent, they are not by the same poet.

(D) says the poems are individually not consistent within itself. Can you not use that to attack the premise "the two poems are not consistent" which then affects the conclusion of the argument?

Thanks for your help!