Hello, Jkjones,
The columnist is making a mistake about numbers. He is adding up the two 25% accident rates, of failure to obey traffic regulations along with inadequate bicycle safety, to get a 50% rate of accidents for which bicyclists are at least partially responsible. This would only work if every accident had
only one of those two causes, and none had both. See?
Here's an example...let's say that we have a city with a population of 1 million people. 75% of the people in the one city own a red car, or 750,000, and 75% of people in that city own a blue car, or 750,000. There aren't 150% of people in this city, or any city for that matter, so it must be true that at least some people in this city own both a red car and a blue car.
Furthermore, in my example, it is also possible that there are people in this city who own neither a red car nor a blue car. It could be true that there are 750,000 people in this city who own both a red car and a blue car, and 250,000 people who own neither a red car nor a blue car.
In the same way, in the question, it could be true that 75% of bicyclists involved in traffic accidents were blameless, and 25% of them had both inadequate bicycle safety
and the failure to obey traffic regulations causing them to be partially responsible. So the columnist's argument that half of all bicyclists are partially responsible does not follow from his premises because of his numbers flaw.
Hope that helps,
Lucas Moreau