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#72961
Complete Question Explanation

Evaluate the Argument, CE. The correct answer choice is (B).

In this stimulus we are told that in a study, when two dogs are given commands, and only one is rewarded afterwards for obedience with a treat, over time the unrewarded dog stops obeying while the rewarded dog continues to obey. This establishes a positive correlation in the study between rewards and obedience, from which the author draws the causal conclusion that the unrewarded dog stops obeying because they don't like being treated unfairly.

This certainly ascribes some high-level thinking to the dogs, and the author overlooks at least a few possible alternate causes for the change in behavior, most of which don't require dogs to be so concerned with justice and fair play.

We are then faced with an Evaluate the Argument question, which is fairly rare on the test. These questions require us to ask ourselves what crucial information is missing from the argument. In other words, what is it that we need to know in order to determine whether this argument is good or not? The correct answer will ask the right question, and application of the Variance Test will help us prove it. That test is about supplying opposing answers (pairs like yes/no, some/none, true/false) to any contenders to see if one such answer weakens the argument while the other strengthens it.

In this case, since the argument is causal, we should ask ourselves, and be looking for, one of the standard causal questions: is there possibly an alternate cause? If the cause is removed, does the effect go away? Could the cause and effect be reversed? Was the study valid, with reliable data? Any answer that raises one of these questions will be correct.

Answer choice (A): This is an irrelevant question, the answers to which neither strengthen nor weaken the causal conclusion. What the dogs were or were not accustomed to before the test won't tell us anything about why unrewarded dogs obeyed at first and then stopped obeying during the study. Was it because of unfair treatment, or for some other reason?

Answer choice (B): This is the correct answer choice. This question is asking if the effect (a decline in obedience over time) is present when the cause (unfair treatment) is removed, one of the standard causal evaluate questions. Consider the Variance Test results here: if the answer is Yes, obedience did decline even when neither dog was given a reward, then the decline would not appear to be caused by unfair treatment (since the dogs were treated fairly, i.e. equally, in this case); if the answer is No, there is no decline in obedience when neither dog is rewarded, then fairness (rather than a lack of treats) looks more likely to be the cause of the change, and the argument is strengthened.

Answer choice (C): Your response to this answer should be "so what?" If some dogs were used in other trials and treated differently in those other trials, that would do nothing to help or harm the causal claim here, as it has nothing to do with alternate causes, reversals, cause without effect, or problems with the data (although you would be forgiven for thinking it might have some impact on the validity of the study at first glance. The Variance Test here should reveal the problem with this answer, as neither a Yes nor a No yields a clear strengthen/weaken result. A Yes results only in vague uncertainty - does this matter? - while a No does nothing at all.)

Answer choice (D): Whether the rewarded dogs did or did not become even more inclined to obey (whatever that means - they were already obedient, so does this mean they obeyed faster, or with a better attitude and more tail wagging?), this would tell us nothing about what caused the other dogs to start disobeying.

Answer choice (E): The number of repetitions might matter for determining the strength of whatever caused the change in the unrewarded dogs, but tells us nothing about what the actual cause might be. Try two numbers for the Variance Test - 1 repetition vs 100 repetitions. Does either answer weaken or strengthen the claim that "unfairness" is the cause? As soon as you realize that 1 repetition tells you nothing, this answer is a loser.
 mpoulson
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#25814
Hello,

Can you explain why the answer is B ? I really didn't see how this helped make the argument more valid than the other choices. Please explain in detail because I was confused. Thank you and appreciate the help as always.

- Micah
 Nikki Siclunov
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#25891
Micah,

Please provide a detailed breakdown of how you understood the argument. At the very least, we expect to see evidence that you were able to:
  • Deconstruct the stimulus into premises/conclusion.
  • Understand whether the conclusion logically follows from the premises, and if not - why not?
  • Correctly identify the type of question in the stem.
  • Prephrase an answer to that question. (Don't be afraid if your prephrase was off - we still need to see what it was).
  • Defend your choice of (incorrect) answer choice.
The more you tell us about your method of approach, the better we can help you figure it out.

Thanks!
 NeverMissing
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#34850
I'd like to make sure I understand why answer choice B is correct. The study in the argument concludes that an aversion to unfair treatment causes dogs who do not get treats to stop obeying commands when they witness another dog getting treats for obeying the same command. The aversion, then, is triggered by seeing another dog treated differently for the same actions.

However, the disobedient dog could be disobedient for other causes (for example, the dog who is never fed treats may get so worn out from hunger after performing commands that they begin to disobey to preserve energy, while the well-fed dog has more energy to continue performing the commands).

Therefore, if (as answer choice B explains), we learn whether or not there is a decline in obedience when treats are withheld from both dogs, it would help evaluate the argument by either strengthening or weakening the claim that unfairness is what causes dogs to decline to obey commands. If there is no decline in performing the command among the dogs, it strengthens the argument by showing the behavior in dogs does not differ when the unfair element is eliminated. If, however, both dogs begin to decline to obey even in the ABSENCE of unfairness, this weakens the argument by pointing to another reason for the decline (like exhaustion from hunger).

Does this explain why answer choice B helps us to evaluate the argument, or am I missing some key reasoning for this question? Thanks!
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 Jonathan Evans
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#35006
Hi, NeverMissing,

Your analysis is sound, but I would like to caution you not to extrapolate too much and venture into conjecture (even just as a thought experiment).

You are correct that the conclusion is that the apparent dissimilarity in treatment of the dogs is the purported cause of the increase in disobedience.

Further, you are also correct that Answer Choice (B) would pass the Variance Test™ in the following manner:
  • If a reward is withheld from both and there's no decline in obedience, then the argument is stronger (because "unfairness" more likely to explain the difference in dog behavior).

    If a reward is withheld from both and there is a decline in obedience, then the argument is weaker (because "unfairness" no longer seems to be the factor that led to the decline in obedience.

So overall, excellent effort and accurate analysis. Just be careful about positing alternate explanations (like exhaustion, or resentment, etc.) because those are outside the scope of this argument. Well done!
 jmramon
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#37757
Hi, Jonathan,

Can you please explain the Variance Test in more detail? From my understanding, answer choice B is correct because it allows us to evaluate whether the withholding of treats after obeying commands causes dogs to generally disobey over time due to dogs' aversion to being treated unfairly. B allows us to evaluate this claim because if treats were withheld from both dogs in the pair after obeying a command and a decline in obedience results over time, the author's claim does hold for dogs generally since the rule also held for the dog in the pair who previously obeyed and received an award (if I'm correct). If obedience doesn't decline over time with the dog in the pair that originally obeyed with awards, then the author's claim fails to demonstrate a direct link between the disobedience from a lack of awards and dogs' aversion to being treated unfairly since obedience doesn't decline when the treats are removed and an aversion thus isn't present.

Jonathan's application of the question to evaluate the argument confused me: "If a reward is withheld from both and there's no decline in obedience, then the argument is stronger (because "unfairness" more likely to explain the difference in dog behavior)". If the reward was withheld from both dogs and there was no decline in obedience, doesn't this result undermine the argument that a lack of rewards leads to a decline in obedience resulting from the aversion to unfair treatment? Jonathan seems to draw a distinction between a decline in obedience and the dogs' aversion to being treated unfairly, whereas I view these phenomena as interrelated--the dogs disobeyed because of their aversion to being treated unfairly. Can you please help me understand your distinction, Jonathan, and whether your distinction needs to be true for the answer to be correct?
 bk1111
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#37845
jmramon wrote:Hi, Jonathan,

Can you please explain the Variance Test in more detail? From my understanding, answer choice B is correct because it allows us to evaluate whether the withholding of treats after obeying commands causes dogs to generally disobey over time due to dogs' aversion to being treated unfairly. B allows us to evaluate this claim because if treats were withheld from both dogs in the pair after obeying a command and a decline in obedience results over time, the author's claim does hold for dogs generally since the rule also held for the dog in the pair who previously obeyed and received an award (if I'm correct). If obedience doesn't decline over time with the dog in the pair that originally obeyed with awards, then the author's claim fails to demonstrate a direct link between the disobedience from a lack of awards and dogs' aversion to being treated unfairly since obedience doesn't decline when the treats are removed and an aversion thus isn't present.

Jonathan's application of the question to evaluate the argument confused me: "If a reward is withheld from both and there's no decline in obedience, then the argument is stronger (because "unfairness" more likely to explain the difference in dog behavior)". If the reward was withheld from both dogs and there was no decline in obedience, doesn't this result undermine the argument that a lack of rewards leads to a decline in obedience resulting from the aversion to unfair treatment? Jonathan seems to draw a distinction between a decline in obedience and the dogs' aversion to being treated unfairly, whereas I view these phenomena as interrelated--the dogs disobeyed because of their aversion to being treated unfairly. Can you please help me understand your distinction, Jonathan, and whether your distinction needs to be true for the answer to be correct?
I think it helps if you view this as a casual argument: the unfair treatment is causing the dogs to behave disobediently.

Given that, if as (B) suggests, there is a decline in obedience if rewards are withheld from both the dogs, it weakens the argument because it suggests that it is not the "unfair treatment" (since under this condition, they are being treated equally by not being given a reward), but something else causing the dog in the experiment to disobey. Inversely, if there is NO decline in obedience from both dogs when the reward is withheld, it strengthens the argument because it suggests that the first dog might have acted disobediently due to unfair treatment.

It is a little convoluted and I initially thought the same way you did, but I think that is the reasoning the instructors are applying to this situation. Please correct me if I am wrong.
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 Jonathan Evans
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#37891
Hi, BK1111 and JMRamon,

Good questions! BK1111, you've pretty much got it! It is indeed causal.

Let's bullet-point this one out:
  • Experiment involves two dogs given command.
  • One dog given reward for following command. Other dog not given reward.
  • Obedience declines in dog not given reward.
  • Author concludes the disobedient dog has an aversion to "unfairness," and this is the reason why it stops obeying.
Right now, the conclusion could be true (the dog might be disobeying because of unfairness) but is not necessarily true (it might be disobeying for some other reason). There's the causality: perhaps the unrewarded dog fails to obey for some other reason.

What might help to evaluate this argument? We might like to know whether another reason for disobedience is plausible or if the unfairness really is the reason for the disobedience.

This is what answer choice (B) accomplishes. The Variance Test™ means that we consider two polar extremes of the scenario in the answer choice.

Let's look at the two extremes in this case. What happens if reward is withheld from both dogs?
  1. There is no decline in obedience.
  2. Both dogs totally stop obeying.
In scenario (1), even though neither dog gets a reward, they both continue to obey. What does this observation tell us? Since they continue to obey even without rewards, we can conclude that the rewards were likely not the cause of their obedience. Therefore, something else is likely the cause of their obedience or disobedience. By ruling out the rewards as an alternate cause for obedience, this scenario strengthens the author's conclusion that the unfairness is the reason why one dog stopped obeying.

In scenario (2), even though neither dog gets a reward, they both totally stop obeying. What does this observation tell us? This scenario weakens the author's argument because it suggests that there might be an alternate cause for obedience or disobedience. In this case, the rewards are probably the reason why the dogs obey. Further, the reason why the unrewarded dog likely disobeyed was not unfairness but simply because it was not given any reward.

I hope this helps!
 jmramon
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#37912
Thank you, BK1111 and Jonathan! Your explantations really helped!
 JD180
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#57087
If the answer to C is yes, then you can cast doubt on the conclusion, which to me is the beat kind of weakening of an argument. What's wrong with this thought process? Would bring in a confounding variable, which would render their conclusion obsolete in its entirety.

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