I feel your pain, cfu1! The issue here is about the definition of "addiction" - for something to be an addiction, there has to be both dependence and abuse. If there's someone out there abusing something but not dependent on it, does that mean that the definition of addiction is wrong? No, it only means that in that case, that person simply isn't addicted!
Here's an analogy using one of my favorite topics: in order for a beverage to be properly called "beer", it must have only water, barley, hops and yeast. This beverage I am drinking is called wheat beer and has no barley but instead has wheat in it, so the definition of beer is wrong.
Is the definition wrong? Not necessarily! Couldn't it be true that the definition is still correct, and the "wheat beer" is NOT properly called beer?
Here's another: a ham and cheese sandwich must have both ham and cheese in it. This sandwich has cheese but no ham, so the definition of a ham and cheese sandwich is wrong. But wait - who said this no-ham, yes-cheese sandwich is a ham and cheese sandwich? If it's not - if it's, say, turkey and cheese - then the definition of ham and cheese could still be correct!
That's what's happening in this stimulus. The only way to show that the definition is wrong is to say that something fails to meet the definition and yet is still in the category of the things so defined. If the morphine-dependent cancer patients don't abuse it but are nonetheless addicted, then the definition of addiction must not actually require abuse. But, if the morphine-addicted cancer patients do not abuse it and are NOT addicted, then the definition of addiction could still be correct. Answer C connects those patients back to addiction, and that's what makes it a winner.
Speaking of winning, can you guess what I had for lunch today? Mmmmmmm.
Keep at it, it will only get easier as you move forward!
Adam M. Tyson
PowerScore LSAT, GRE, ACT and SAT Instructor
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