- Wed Sep 06, 2017 3:45 pm
#39274
Hi,
I originally chose (E), and then switched it to (A) on blind review.
I thought (A) was correct because the advocate arguing that "willingness to pay is not proportional to need" disputes the explanation that explains what results from price gouging...supposedly efficiency, because it "allocates goods to people whose willingness to pay more shows that they really need those goods." The advocate makes way for an alternative explanation, which is that what results from price gouging is not efficiency rather but allocation to "the people with the most money," not the highest willingness to pay.
I thought (E) was wrong because I didn't understand why it would be the case that the economists' argument assumes that "willingness to pay is proportional to need." In particular, I didn't think it was correct to think that the economists' necessarily assumed *proportionality.* They argued that price gouging resulted in efficiency because it "allocates goods to people whose willingness to pay more shows that they really need those goods." Why does that willingness have to be proportional? Yes, it must be true that there must be a Person A willing to pay, say, 100, and a Person B willing to pay only say 50; and it's also true that Person A must need those goods more than Person B, according to the stimulus. But why do the prices entail that Person A needs the goods exactly twice as much as Person B? The economists are only saying that willingness to pay varies and that need varies, not necessarily that they are proportional. (I know that in real life the economic theory is proportional, but didn't think I was warranted in making that assumption.)
I guess the answer is that the consumer advocate "takes it to be assumed," even if in fact it may not have been assumed?