- Wed Sep 27, 2017 10:05 am
#40146
Hey I have a question about answer A. I know why D is the right answer but I'm having trouble fully eliminating A. If there was an innate disposition of the human mind to prefer diatonic music, and no other factor contributed to a preference, then it would seem to imply that every person would prefer it. No amount of external factors would affect this. So if one person preferred nondiatonic music then that would surely weaken the argument. Is it because we don't know if he considered the possibility, and therefore isn't even factually true? Or is it because even if it were true, it's not actually a flaw?