- Thu Jun 19, 2014 10:29 am
#15009
Hi adunay,
Thanks for your question. Let's take a look at the paragraph more closely:
The passage begins by outlining a quandary (why did our ancestors engage in representational art) and then presents an example of such art: the images in 25,000-year-old cave paintings made by the Aurignacians. In lines 8-17, the author outlines a possible explanation, which is stated - as you correctly observe - as the viewpoint of "some anthropologists." In their view, Aurignacians were able to execute such paintings because they could afford to spend the time perfecting their skills.
Then, in line 17, the author offers her own interpretation of the anthropologists' view: "in other words...". Unlike the discussion in line 11 ("the reasoning goes..."), here there is no rhetorical distance between the anthropologists' and the author's viewpoints. Instead, the author tacitly endorses their explanation, adding her own spin on it: there must have been a distinct group of artists. The last point does not appear to belong to the anthropologists themselves, and - even if it does - the author is clearly in agreement with it. No objections are presented to counter it, either in this or in subsequent paragraphs.
The phrase "in other words" suggests an interpretation of an earlier viewpoint. Unless it is specifically attributed to someone else, you can assume this is the author's own interpretation.
Let me know if this makes sense.
Thanks!
Nikki Siclunov
PowerScore Test Preparation