- Fri Aug 17, 2018 1:04 pm
#49722
Hi, while the explanations for D have been very thorough, and I get that there is a distinct difference between Author's intent to give pleasure, vs. the evidence provided, which does not talk about intent. When I negate D, I get: "A book may give pleasure even if the author did not intend to give pleasure," I still don't get how this weakens the argument. Even if a book did give pleasure when the author didn't mean to give pleasure, how does this really impact the argument/why would the argument fall apart? As it is using a sales figure/popularity example to refute the claim that pleasure can't impart truth to readers. Can you please explain this? Thanks!