- Mon Sep 03, 2012 3:33 pm
#5122
I'm confused about Jones's reasoning. Why couldn't the ancestors have migrated South? Why is it referring to the people migrating South? Can you explain the entire question please? Both sides, please. I understand that the tools may not have been found because they decomposed according to Smith, but I'm not sure how Jones's argument makes sense in the first place, unless it doesn't matter if it does or not, and I just have to accept it how it is.
Thanks!
Thanks!