RC Problem Set #1: Passage #3 Q: 5

[moshei24]

Hi,

Is the answer to this question found in lines 30-32? If so, how does it take the fact that artistic work of Black people could only be used to promote racial acceptance and integration if it gets Europeanized as proof that the requirement that Black writers employ Western European literary techniques was imposed more for social than aesthetic reasons? Was this requirement created by the Black writers because they realized that only if they Westernize their work would it be able to promote their causes?

Please explain.

Also, is this passage assuming that the reader knows what year the Civil War was in?

Thanks!

[Adam Tyson]

I would say that the author's comment in lines 30-32 is less important in answering that question than the information in lines 28-29. This is where we see the discussion of "the extent" of Europeanization of the sorrow songs - a prominent Black singer translates the traditional songs into something more Euro-centric. The following comment doesn't tell us anything about that extent - rather, it just reinforces the theme of what the author tells us was the dominant characteristic of African American literature prior to 1926.

I would agree that it appears that the author does take for granted that the reader will know that in 1862 the Civil Was was still going on, but by 1916 it was over. They are usually better at giving us definitions and other "outside" information, rather than relying on us to bring that knowledge in. For someone unfamiliar with U.S. history, that bit might be confusing.

I have read the rest of your question several times, and I must admit that I don't understand what you are asking. Where is the discussion of social vs. aesthetic considerations? I think there is some evidence, looking at the Jubilee Songs example, that Europeanization was promoted at least partially from within the African American community, but whether it was because Whites would not accept it otherwise or because Blacks didn't believe Whites would accept it otherwise is not really addressed. It does seem that northern Whites did appreciate the aesthetic qualities of the songs in 1862, but whether they continued to do so later is left unanswered, it seems to me.

Adam

[moshei24]

I think the main thing I was trying to understand was how we know that it was based on social considerations as opposed to aesthetic considerations. And I think it's because the whole passage was based on interactions between Blacks and Whites, so it would be an inherent assumption that if it doesn't specifically say that the issue was aesthetic that it would be social. Does that make sense?

Thank you.