- Fri Aug 03, 2018 10:26 am
#49148
So does "a few fail to be" mean "most are" (or at least "some are") because that is what "a few fail to be" means in natural language? Because logically wouldn't it mean "a few are not," which is NOT equivalent to "some are?"
Therefore, sometimes we have to trust our natural instincts in understanding the LSATs language? Sometimes natural language implies something other than what your logical interpretation might mean... I suppose this is what an idiom is.
Could anyone provide a few examples of how natural language would indeed imply something other than what the logical interpretation would be?
est15 wrote:Hi, can you explain how "few cowards fail to be fools" is equivalent to "some cowards are fools"? I'm having trouble getting there because I thought "few cowards fail to be fools" meant that "some cowards are not fools." Thanks.This was my question too, although it was answered here. However I want to be more clear.
So does "a few fail to be" mean "most are" (or at least "some are") because that is what "a few fail to be" means in natural language? Because logically wouldn't it mean "a few are not," which is NOT equivalent to "some are?"
Therefore, sometimes we have to trust our natural instincts in understanding the LSATs language? Sometimes natural language implies something other than what your logical interpretation might mean... I suppose this is what an idiom is.
Could anyone provide a few examples of how natural language would indeed imply something other than what the logical interpretation would be?