lsatretaker wrote:Hello,
I fail to see how the decision to describe anarchy as both "the absence of government" and "a social philosophy that countenances chaos" constitutes an illicit shift and how describing it as "a social philosophy that countenances chaos" constitutes a definition. As I see it, the author's argument is weak because he doesn't provide sufficient evidence that anarchy is 1. a social philosophy or 2. a social philosophy that countenances chaos. Does adding an unjustified description fall under the umbrella of the flaw of re-defining terms?
Further, something can be a "social philosophy that countenances chaos" while still being "the absence of government." And something can be described without being given meaning. This author simply describes the term at hand as one thing, then immediately moves into a discussion of a separate characteristic of the term, which includes premises and a conclusion based on the separate characteristic. How can we know when a term has been "defined"?
Thank you!
Hi Retaker,
I'm not sure how to respond to your post other than to say that this is how LSAC sees it, and so we really have no choice here but to try to understand why they see it this way. Trust me, I've been in the position of disagreeing with the LSAT before, but generally it's a losing battle (actually, it always is lol).
In this case, what we have is a first definition of anarchy as "the absence of government," and a later definition of anarchy as "chaos." That is a leap that I personally see as being too big since I wouldn't equate those two things (while they
could ultimately turn out the same, there is no guarantee of that). At this point, I'm not sure what more to say about it? LSAC saw it as a problem, and you did not, but we have no choice but to accept their view here :/
You mention that, "This author simply describes the term at hand as one thing, then immediately moves into a discussion of a separate characteristic of the term, which includes premises and a conclusion based on the separate characteristic." I'd say that the term is defined at the beginning, and then at the end that term is again defined, but differently. The author stated what it was in each case, which is enough to constitute a definition in my eyes.
I'm not sure this helps much. You seem to clearly understand the flaw they are describing (which is awesome) but disagree that it's a flaw. At that point,
it's a no-win situation unfortunately.
Thanks!