- Tue Sep 10, 2019 12:27 pm
#68002
Hi chiickenx,
A generalization is, in a technical sense, "a general statement or concept obtained by inference from specific cases," and, in a non-technical sense, "a general statement, law, principle, or proposition." The technical sense gives us a little better flavor for what we're looking for: a statement made applicable to a broader set than just an individual instance or a few individual instances. How wide does that broader group have to be? It's not entirely certain. So, I wouldn't limit the use of the term "generalization" to just those statements that refer to "most" or "all" of a group. For example, one could generalize from something one observes, and say that thing happens "frequently," without necessarily implying it happens all of the time, or even more often than not. And keep in mind that the term "some," as the logical opposite of none, is broad enough to potentially include "all" or "most" within it. So as a pure definitional matter, "some" could be read to apply to others beyond the individuals a statement is being drawn from.
Now, is this particular assumption in the question stem a true "generalization," in the sense that it's taking an experience of one or a few instances and applying it to a broader set? It's not entirely clear, and I think it's fair to read it as James has. But, as he points out, there are other, better reasons to reject answer choices B and E, so we don't have to read that one (slightly nebulous) term as dispositive.
I hope this helps!
Jeremy
Jeremy Press
LSAT Instructor and law school admissions consultant
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