- Mon Jul 08, 2019 5:08 pm
#66298
Thanks for your question, pinsyuanwu! As you can see from the discussions earlier in this thread, the semantics of answer A are troubling. I didn't like it myself at first, because it was entirely possible that last year Jennifer took two weeks of vacation and still have more than 2 weeks left over, allowing her to carry over an extra week to this year. Here's how:
Year 1 - no vacation available and none taken
Year 2 - she is entitled to 3 weeks and takes none. She carries over half the balance, 1.5 weeks, and so in year 3 she is entitled to all of that.
Year 3 - she takes 2.5 weeks of her 4.5 available (3 weeks for this year plus 1.5 carried over), leaving 2 unused, and she carries over 1 year to this year
Year 4 - this year. She could take all 4 weeks, even though last year she took more than 2 weeks of vacation.
Put another way, in order for Jennifer to take 4 weeks this year, she had to carry over at least 1 week, and since she can only carry over half of her unused vacation time that means she must have had two or more weeks unused at the end of last year.
Answer A would have been clearer and better if it had said that Jennifer left at least 2 weeks of vacation unused at the end of last year, or that she did not use at least 2 weeks. I think if this question was on the test today, that answer would have been better written to capture that idea of "at least", because LSAC has gotten better over the years at tightening up answer choices to avoid getting hit with arguments against them.
Nevertheless, it is not unreasonable to interpret answer A as meaning that she had at least two weeks unused at the end of last year - she didn't use two of her available weeks, and maybe left even more unused. Despite the problems with the way they wrote that answer, it is the best of the bunch, and we are after all instructed to select the best answer, even if we don't love it!
An ugly answer, for sure, but still the right one. I hope this makes clearer why that's so!
Year 1 - no vacation available and none taken
Year 2 - she is entitled to 3 weeks and takes none. She carries over half the balance, 1.5 weeks, and so in year 3 she is entitled to all of that.
Year 3 - she takes 2.5 weeks of her 4.5 available (3 weeks for this year plus 1.5 carried over), leaving 2 unused, and she carries over 1 year to this year
Year 4 - this year. She could take all 4 weeks, even though last year she took more than 2 weeks of vacation.
Put another way, in order for Jennifer to take 4 weeks this year, she had to carry over at least 1 week, and since she can only carry over half of her unused vacation time that means she must have had two or more weeks unused at the end of last year.
Answer A would have been clearer and better if it had said that Jennifer left at least 2 weeks of vacation unused at the end of last year, or that she did not use at least 2 weeks. I think if this question was on the test today, that answer would have been better written to capture that idea of "at least", because LSAC has gotten better over the years at tightening up answer choices to avoid getting hit with arguments against them.
Nevertheless, it is not unreasonable to interpret answer A as meaning that she had at least two weeks unused at the end of last year - she didn't use two of her available weeks, and maybe left even more unused. Despite the problems with the way they wrote that answer, it is the best of the bunch, and we are after all instructed to select the best answer, even if we don't love it!
An ugly answer, for sure, but still the right one. I hope this makes clearer why that's so!
Adam M. Tyson
PowerScore LSAT, GRE, ACT and SAT Instructor
Follow me on Twitter at https://twitter.com/LSATadam
PowerScore LSAT, GRE, ACT and SAT Instructor
Follow me on Twitter at https://twitter.com/LSATadam