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 Adam Tyson
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#94481
It is indeed! A conditional relationship IS an "association" between the two conditions, but while many conditional claims would seem to imply a causal relationship ("if I have the flu, then I will not go to work"), they do not require a causal relationship, and we should not use a causal analysis when dealing with them.
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 goingslow
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#94489
Thank you, Adam!
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 electricwatt
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#106337
goingslow wrote: Sat Mar 26, 2022 8:53 am Hi! So is it fair to say that conditional logic can indicate association/correlation, but not causation?

Thank you so much!

Hi, could we please get some guidance here.

I understood the conditional arguments but in my mind i always associated conditional arguments with causation "IF THEN" and not just association/correlation. But I guess im thinking wrong? Does conditional logic indicate association/correlation only and not causation? or is it irrelevant and the answer response was solely based off the language of the stimulus to set us up.

thanks so much!
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 Chandler H
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#106360
electricwatt wrote: Mon May 06, 2024 1:56 pm
goingslow wrote: Sat Mar 26, 2022 8:53 am Hi! So is it fair to say that conditional logic can indicate association/correlation, but not causation?

Thank you so much!

Hi, could we please get some guidance here.

I understood the conditional arguments but in my mind i always associated conditional arguments with causation "IF THEN" and not just association/correlation. But I guess im thinking wrong? Does conditional logic indicate association/correlation only and not causation? or is it irrelevant and the answer response was solely based off the language of the stimulus to set us up.

thanks so much!
Hi electricwatt,

I'm not exactly sure what you're asking, but yes, generally conditionals are associated with if/then statements.

Answer choice (B) is wrong primarily, in my eyes, because it asserts that "its absence has always led to failure." Think about what we know; we know that every time Acredian governments have fallen, the ruler has been bad. Do we know that every time a ruler has been bad, the government has fallen? No! Therefore, we can't say that the absence of a good ruler ALWAYS leads to failure.

Does that make more sense?

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