- Wed Jul 15, 2020 10:06 am
#77157
I'm struggling really badly with this question. The first explanation on here states that, "the only conclusion you should draw is that since the percentage of injuries attributed to non-slope activities rose, the percentage of injuries attributed to slope activities must have fallen, because those classification cover the entire resort."
Since we weren't given the total number of skiers that were present at the resort in 1950/1980 then I didn't think that we could make any inferences about the percentages. I figure our inferences would be around why the percentages for non-slope injuries or the number for slope injures changed from 1950 to 1980. My percentage/math skills in general are pretty bad, so I would greatly appreciate it if someone could dumb this down for me.
Thanks in advance!
Since we weren't given the total number of skiers that were present at the resort in 1950/1980 then I didn't think that we could make any inferences about the percentages. I figure our inferences would be around why the percentages for non-slope injuries or the number for slope injures changed from 1950 to 1980. My percentage/math skills in general are pretty bad, so I would greatly appreciate it if someone could dumb this down for me.
Thanks in advance!